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The Holy Spirit - God's Active Force

Researched and Compiled by Chuck McManigal


There is so much written about Jehovah and his Son, Jesus Christ, but very few verses include the holy spirit when the Father and/or Son are mentioned in the same verse. In most cases Trinitarians stress verses they believe “prove” that Jesus Christ is God. But these verses seldom, if ever, mention the holy spirit. The doctrine of the Trinity rests on the supposed equality of three “persons,” not just two. So what do verses that mention God’s holy spirit actually say? First of all, it is absolutely accurate to say that not even one verse in the Bible teaches or even suggests a Trinity Doctrine, or that the holy spirit is part of a Trinity, or equal with God and Christ!

The Bible’s use of “holy spirit” indicates that it is a controlled force emanating from Jehovah God that He uses to accomplish a variety of things relative to his purposes. To a certain extent it can be likened to electricity, a force that can perform a great variety of operations. The first mention of God’s spirit (Hebrew: ruach) or active force is at Gen.1:2 where such spirit, we are told, was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters. Here, God’s spirit was his active force working to shape the earth.

God uses his spirit to enlighten those who serve him. David prayed: Teach me to do your will, for you are my God. Your spirit (ruach) is good; may it lead me in the land of uprightness.” (Ps. 143:10).

When 70 capable men were appointed to help Moses, God said to him: “I shall have to take away some of the spirit (ruach) that is upon you and place it upon them.” (Num. 11:17) Or, as Byington’s version puts it: “...and take off part of the spirit that rests on you and place it on them...” Obviously, Jehovah was not going to remove his spirit completely from Moses to give it to others, as he was far from finished using Moses in the accomplishing of His purposes. So, Jehovah took a portion, or some of his spirit and placed it on these 70 men. This would be difficult to accomplish if Jehovah’s spirit were a “person,” but Jehovah could take some of his “active force” and share it with others. (see NEB: “a portion” and TEV: “some of the spirit”)

Bible prophecy was recorded when men of God were “borne along by holy spirit (Greek: pneuma) (2 Peter 1:20,21). In this way the Bible was “inspired” of God. (Greek: Theo’pneustos, meaning “God-breathed) (2 Tim. 3:16). And holy spirit (God’s active force) guided certain people to see visions or to have prophetic dreams. (2 Sam. 23:2; Joel 2:28,29; Luke 1:67; Acts 1:16; 2:32,33).

The holy spirit impelled Jesus to go into the wilderness after his baptism. (Mark 1:12) The spirit was like a fire within God’s servants, causing them to be energized by that force, which enabled them to speak out boldly and courageously. (Micah 3:8; Acts 7:55-60; 18:25; Romans 12:11; 1 Thess. 5:19)

By his spirit, God carried out his judgments on men and nations. (Isa. 30:27,28; 59:18,19) and God’s spirit can reach anywhere, acting in God’s behalf, for or against people. (Ps. 139:7-12).

God’s spirit can supply “power beyond what is normal” (2 Cor. 4:7) to those who serve him, enabling them to endure trials of faith, or to do things they couldn’t otherwise do. For example, Judges 16:6 says: “Then Jehovah’s spirit became operative upon him, [Samson] so that he tore in two [the lion]...” Did a divine “person” enter into Samson, manipulating his body to do what he did? Or was it “the power of the Lord that made Samson strong.” (TEV).

This active force of God enabled Jesus to heal the sick and raise the dead. As Luke 5:17 says: (JB) “The power of the Lord [God] was behind his [Jesus’] works of healing.” (See ALL translations)

God’s spirit also empowered the disciples of Jesus to do miraculous things. Acts 2:1-4 relates that the disciples were assembled together at Pentecost when “suddenly there occurred from heaven a noise just like that of a rushing stiff breeze, ...and they all became filled with holy spirit and started to speak with different tongues, just as the spirit was granting them to make utterance.” So, the holy spirit gave Jesus and other servants of God the power to do what humans ordinarily could not do.

Are there not, however, Bible verses that speak of the holy spirit in personal terms? Yes, however, please note what the well-known Catholic theologian, Edmund Fortman says about this in his book The Triune God: “Although the spirit is often described in personal terms, it seems quite clear that the sacred writers (of the Hebrew Scriptures) never conceived or presented this spirit as a distinct
person.”

In the Scriptures it is not unusual for something inanimate to be personified. Wisdom is said to have children. (Luke 7:35) Sin and death are called kings at Romans 5:14,21. At Genesis 4:7 the NEB says: “Sin is a demon crouching at the door,” personifying sin as a wicked spirit crouching at Cain’s door. But sin, of course, is not a spirit person; nor does personifying the holy spirit make it a spirit person

Similarly, at 1 John 5:6-8, not only the spirit, but also “the water and the blood” are said to be “witnesses” or “those who testify.” The water and the blood are not “persons” and neither is the holy spirit a “person.”

In harmony with this is the Bible’s general usage of “holy spirit” in an impersonal way, such as paralleling it with water and fire at Mark 1:8 and Matt. 3:11. People are urged to become filled with holy spirit instead of with wine at Eph. 5:18. They are spoken of as being filled with holy spirit in the same way they are filled with such qualities as wisdom, faith, and joy, which qualities are not “persons” either. At 2 Cor. 6:6,7 we see holy spirit sandwiched in between a number of qualities: “by purity, by knowledge, by long-suffering, by kindness, by holy spirit, by love free from hypocrisy, by truthful speech, by God’s power.” Are any of these “persons”?

Then, too, while some Bible texts say that the spirit speaks, other texts show that this was actually done through humans, angels, or God’s word itself. (Matt. 10:19,,20; Acts 4:24,25; 28:25; Heb. 2:2) Compare Acts 8, verse 26 with verse 29. (Also, the comparing of Acts 10:19,20 to Acts 11:11-13 will be covered on p.4)

Since the holy spirit is not a “person,” it does not have a personal name, yet at Matt. 28:19 reference is made to “The name...of the holy spirit.” But the word “name” does not always mean a personal name, nor does it always refer to a “person” either in Greek or English. For example, when we say, “in the name of the law,” we are not referring to a person or a personal name. We mean that which the law stands for, its authority. Robertson’s Word Pictures in the New Testament says: “The use of name (onoma) here is a common one in the Septuagint [Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, dating from around 200 before Christ) and the Papyri for power or authority.” So baptism “in the name of the holy spirit” recognizes the authority of the spirit, just as “in the name of the law” recognizes the authority of the law. The authority of the spirit is from God and functions by divine will.

Jesus spoke of the holy spirit as a “helper” and he said it would teach, guide, and speak. (John 14:16, 26; 16:13) The Greek word he used for helper is “parakletos” and is in the masculine gender. So when Jesus referred to what the “helper” would do, he used the masculine personal pronoun “he”. (John 16:7,8) On the other hand, when the word “spirit” (Greek: pneuma) is used, the neuter pronoun “it” is used.

Most Trinitarian translators hide this fact and translate “he” or “him” regardless of whether the neuter “spirit” is spoken of, or the masculine “helper” is spoken of. However, the Catholic New American Bible admits regarding John 14:17: “The Greek word for ‘spirit’ is neuter, and while we use personal pronouns in English (‘he,’ ‘his,’ ‘him’) most Greek MSS [manuscripts] employ ‘it’” (See the Emphatic Diaglott)

So, when the Bible uses masculine personal pronouns in connection with parakletos at John 16:7,8 it is conforming to rules of grammar, not expressing a doctrine. Those translators who do not conform to the rules of grammar are really showing or revealing their Trinitarian bias. In one verse quoted on page 1 of this paper, Numbers 11:17, I found that in all the translations I checked, all of the translators used the pronoun “it” in reference to God’s spirit. You might check this in your Bible. There is one place where Bible translators follow the rules of grammar and do not show Trinitarian bias. Hopefully, there are other places where translators have done this also.

Various sources acknowledge that the Bible does not support the idea that the holy spirit is the third person of a Trinity: Please note the following:

The Catholic Encyclopedia: “Nowhere in the Old Testament do we find any clear indication of a Third Person.”

Catholic theologian Fortman: “The Jews never regarded the spirit as a person; nor is there any solid evidence that any Old Testament writer held this view. ...The Holy Spirit is usually presented in the Synoptics [Gospels] and in Acts as a divine force or power.”

The New Catholic Encyclopedia: “The O.T. clearly does not envisage God’s spirit as a person ...God’s spirit is simply God’s power. If it is sometimes represented as being distinct from God, it is because the breath of Yahweh acts exteriorly.” This reference book also states: “The majority of NT texts reveal God’s spirit as something, not someone; this is especially seen in the parallelism between the spirit and the power of God.”

A Catholic Dictionary: “On the whole, the New Testament, like the Old, speaks of the spirit as a divine energy or power.” These quotes are quite surprising, even amazing, coming from Roman Catholic sources, especially since the Trinity Doctrine itself comes from Roman Catholic Theology.

The New English Bible, (Catholic edition called the Oxford Study Edition), has this footnote at Joel:2:32: “The Lord’s spirit—the animating force behind the prophets”.

The Companion Bible (KJV), appendix No. 9, “The Usage of Ruach—Spirit”: “The one root idea running through all the (224) passages is invisible force…Invisible Divine power manifesting itself.”

Neither the Jews, nor the early Christians thought of the holy spirit as part of a Trinity. That teaching came centuries later. As A Catholic Dictionary notes: “The third person was asserted at a Council of Alexandria in 362 [C.E.]...and finally by the Council of Constantinople of 381 [C.E.] This was some 3 1/2 centuries after the disciples were filled with holy spirit at Pentecost!

No, the holy spirit is not a person and it is not part of a Trinity. The holy spirit is God’s active force that he uses to accomplish his will. It is not equal to God, but is always at God’s disposal, or use.

What about certain verses that say: “the spirit said” or “the holy spirit said.” We have already discussed earlier that the Bible often personalizes things that are not persons, such as “wisdom,” “sin,” and “death.” Other inanimate things such as “water” and “blood” are referred to as “witnesses” or those which “testify.” According to the Bible, one can be baptized with water, fire or holy spirit, none of which are persons. But let’s zero in on some verses that speak of the spirit, or holy spirit as speaking. At Acts 8:29 we read, “So the spirit said to Philip: ‘Approach and join yourself to this chariot.’”

In this case, according to v.26, this spirit was an angel: “However, Jehovah’s angel spoke to Philip saying: ‘Rise and go to the south to the road that runs down from Jerusalem to Gaza.’” In verse 29, this spirit creature, or angel, continues his conversation with Philip. (Ps. 104:4 says Jehovah makes his angels spirits. See also, Heb. 1:7 where Paul quotes from Ps. 104:4)

Acts 11:12: “So the spirit told me to go with them...” From the context of verses 5-13 it appears Peter saw a vision, and the one speaking in this vision is no doubt an angel, as he refers to “the voice from heaven” in v.9. And in v.13 it speaks of an angel standing in the house of a man who spoke further instructions to them. Compare Acts 10:19,20 (what this “spirit” did) to Acts 11:11-13 where Peter is recounting the story and calls this “spirit” an ANGEL.

Acts 10:19 says: “As Peter was going over in his mind about the vision, the spirit said: ‘Look, three men are seeking you.” This is actually the original account of the angel talking to Peter. At Acts 11:12 (above) Peter is relating this experience. Again, compare carefully Peter’s words at Acts 11: especially verses 9,12 and 13.

Acts 13:2 is different in that it says, “...The holy spirit said: ‘of all persons set Barnabas and Saul apart for me for the work for which I have called them.’” The question arises, how can the holy spirit speak if not a “person”? Are there impersonal, or non-personal things in the Bible described as performing an action? Please note the following examples:

Gen. 4:;7 speaks of “...sin crouching at the entrance...and for you is its craving...” Is sin a person so it can perform the action of “crouching”? Can sin “crave” anything as if it were a person, as that verse states? At Proverbs 20:1 it says that “Wine is a ridiculer and intoxicating liquor is boisterous...” Are we to understand that wine and liquor are persons? The Bible’s use of non-literal language is plain for all to understand.

Also, was Balaam’s ass a “person” because it spoke and used the personal pronoun “I”? (Numbers 22:28-30) No! These were Jehovah’s words spoken through Balaam’s ass, and at Acts 13:2 these are Jehovah’s words spoken by means of Jehovah’s spirit, or active force of Jehovah, communicating with his people in one of various ways.

James 5:4 says: ‘Look, the wages due the workers who harvested your fields, but which are held up by you, keep crying out...” Phillips says: “But look, here is the pay...and it cries out against you.”

The Revised Standard Version says: “The wages...cry out.” NEB says: “The wages...are loud against you.” JB says: “Listen to the wages that you kept back, calling out.” NIV says: “Look, the wages...are crying out against you.” Was the “pay” or “wages” a person because, as the NASV puts it, “The pay...cries out”?

Gal. 3:8 says: “Now the Scriptures, seeing in advance...declared the good news beforehand to Abraham, namely: ‘By means of you all the nations will be blessed.’” Phillips says: “The scripture...proclaimed the gospel in the words spoken to Abraham, ‘In thee shall all nations be blessed.’” RSV says: “And the scripture...preached the gospel to Abraham, saying ‘In you shall all the nations be blessed.’” NIV: “The Scripture foresaw...and announced the gospel in advance to Abraham: ‘all nations will be blessed in you.’” TEV: “The scripture saw ahead of time: ‘Through you God will bless all the people on earth.’” JB: “Scripture foresaw...and proclaimed...” NEB: “And Scripture, foreseeing...declared the Gospel to Abraham beforehand...”

Here we have abundant proof from several translations, that something inanimate, not alive, not a “person” The Scripture foresaw and proclaimed a message to Abraham! Does the Scripture actually speak here, or is it God communicating or speaking in this particular case through the Scripture? (as well as through inspiration of God’s spirit). Do these words of Gal. 3:8 make the “Scripture” conscious and alive in itself? Does it make the “Scripture” a “person”?

Consider the following:

Gen.4:10 “...your brother’s blood is crying out to me from the ground.” Does the blood, something inanimate and not a “person” actually cry out?

Rev. 16:7 “And I heard the alter say: ‘Yes, Jehovah God, the Almighty, true and righteous are your judicial decisions.’” Phillips: “And I heard the alter say, ‘Yes, O Lord, God Almighty...” RSV: “And I heard the alter cry, ‘Yea, Lord God the Almighty,...’” NIV: “And I heard the alter respond,...” NEB: And I heard the alter cry,...” JB: “And I heard the alter itself say, ...”

Is the alter alive, conscious, a “person”? Does the fact that the alter speaks make the alter a person? Does the fact that the holy spirit speaks make it a person?

Heb. 12:24 says: “And Jesus the mediator of a new covenant, and the blood of sprinkling which speaks in a better way then Abel’s blood.” KJV: “...and to the blood of sprinkling that speaketh better things than that of Abel.” The Living Bible: “...blood which graciously forgives instead of crying out for vengeance as the blood of Abel did.” Phillips: “...blood which tells a better story than the blood of Abel” RSV: “...blood that speaks more graciously than the blood of Abel.” TEV: “...blood that tells of much better things than Abel’s blood.” NIV: “...blood that speaks a better word than the blood of Abel.” JB: “...Which pleads more insistently than Abel’s.” NEB: ‘...blood has better things to tell than the blood of Abel.”

Is Jesus’ blood a “person” so it can “forgive”? Does the fact that the blood is said to “tell,” “speak,” or “plead” make the blood alive, conscious, or a “person”?

Please reason on the following: Proverbs 1:20-22 says: “True wisdom itself keeps crying out in the very street. In the public square it keeps giving forth its voice...’How long will you inexperienced ones keep loving inexperience, and how long must you ridiculers desire for yourself outright ridicule?...”

Luke 11:49 says: “...the wisdom of God also said: ‘I will send forth to them...’”

Is “wisdom” here alive, conscious, a “person”? Does the fact that wisdom speaks the specific words above in both of those Scriptural citations mean that wisdom is a “person”? Then, too, the holy spirit can speak out DEFINITE WORDS attributed to it without being alive, conscious, or a “person”. Or, if Trinitarians say that here wisdom is actually the pre-human Jesus, (and this may well be so!) then they must accept what Proverbs 8:22-30 says about “wisdom” being Jesus Christ in his pre-human existence who Jehovah himself “produced me as the beginning of his way, the earliest of his achievements of long ago.” This Scripture totally agrees with Col. 1:15 and Rev. 3:14, all three of these verses being discussed at length in the “Trinity” paper I provided you, showing that since Jesus had a beginning--”The beginning of the creation of God, or as stated above in Prov. 8, Jesus could not be equal with Jehovah in eternity since Jesus had a beginning and was actually part of Jehovah’s creation or creative works, whereas Jehovah is He that created and had no beginning.

So, if we take “wisdom” in Prov. 1:20-22 as, NOT the pre-human Jesus, we see this quality “crying” out in the street...giving forth its voice.” and saying specific words! Is “wisdom” at Prov. 1:20-22 a “person”?

Acts 20:23 says” “...the holy spirit repeatedly bears witness to me as it says that bonds and tribulations are waiting for me.” RSV: “...the Holy Spirit testifies to me...” 1 John 5:7 says there are “Three witness bearers” or as the NIV says, “there are three that testify, the spirit and the water and the blood.” Are we to say that the water and the blood are also persons because they “testify” or “bear witness”? If we say that about the holy spirit, shouldn’t we say the same about the water and the blood, since they also “bear witness” or “testify.”

Now, please note the following: Hebrews 10:15-17 says: “Moreover, the holy spirit also BEARS WITNESS to us, for after it has said, ‘This is the covenant that I shall covenant toward them after those days,’ says Jehovah, ‘I will put my laws in their hearts, and in their minds I shall write them.’ it says afterwards: ‘and I shall by no means call their sins and their lawless deeds to mind anymore.’” These words were actually spoken BY JEHOVAH to his prophet Jeremiah. Paul quotes Jeremiah 31:33,34 where Jeremiah, UNDER INSPIRATION OF GOD’S SPIRIT wrote down what Jehovah said. Ps. 95:7 says: “...if you will listen to his own voice.” How do we listen to Jehovah’s voice today? By reading Jehovah’s word, written through inspiration of his spirit. In that way in a figurative sense, GOD’S HOLY SPIRIT SPEAKS TO US EVEN TODAY!

Please note the following: Acts 1:16 says: “Men, brothers, it was necessary for the scripture to be fulfilled, which the holy spirit spoke beforehand by David’s mouth.” According to this verse, the holy spirit spoke through David’s mouth. Mark 12:36 says: “By the holy spirit David himself said, ‘Jehovah said to my Lord...’” Jehovah used his spirit--his active force--upon those He chose to write the Bible, so that they were inspired (God-breathed) to accomplish the writing of His word. So, by the holy spirit David himself wrote those words of Ps. 110:1.

2 Sam. 23:2 says: “The spirit of Jehovah it was that spoke by me. And his word was upon my tongue.” Jehovah caused the writer to write these words by his active force, his spirit.

Zech. 7:12 says: “...and the words that Jehovah of armies sent by his spirit, by means of the former prophets.” So, again, the prophets spoke from Jehovah, by His spirit, (or by inspiration).

1 Tim. 3:16 says: “All Scripture is INSPIRED OF GOD...” NIV: “All scripture is God-breathed...”

2 Peter 1:21 says: “Men spoke from God as they were borne along by holy spirit” Being “borne along by holy spirit” and being “God-breathed” or inspired is the same thing. God did not breathe a “PERSON” into these Bible writers. He breathed into them, or inspired them to write by his active force being placed upon them.

There was never a question from those Jews, who Jehovah used in writing the Bible, prior to, or after Jesus’ day in understanding what this God-given process was--and keep in mind, those Jews did not believe in the holy spirit as a “person”. That belief didn’t even come into existence until 325-381 CE, well after religious apostasy set into Christian thinking!”

Please reason on these verses too:

Acts 21:4 “...But through the spirit they [the disciples] repeatedly told Paul not to set foot in Jerusalem.” This was through the spirit, or the leading of the spirit, or influence or direction of God’s spirit (active force).

Acts 28:25,26 says: “...while Paul made this one comment: ‘THE HOLY SPIRIT APTLY SPOKE THROUGH ISAIAH THE PROPHET to your forefathers, saying, “Go to this people and say, ‘By hearing you will hear but by no means understand; and looking you will look but by no means see...’”’”

Jesus quoted these same verses from Isa. 6:9,10 at Matt. 13:13,14. Paul said “The holy spirit spoke,” while Jesus referred to these words as the “PROPHECY OF ISAIAH” (at Matt. 13) So, again, the HOLY SPIRIT SPOKE THROUGH ISAIAH THE PROPHET who was inspired by God to write.

Acts 5:3,4 is a scripture that Trinitarians like to use to “prove” that the holy spirit is Almighty God. Let’s examine what they say and then reason on the verses in question: “But Peter said, ‘Ananias, why has Satan emboldened you to play false to the holy spirit, ...You have played false, not to men, but to God.’” Or, “You have lied, not to men, but to God.” We’ll approach this from two aspects. (1) Does the fact that the Scripture says both were lied against make the holy spirit God? and (2) How can one lie against the holy spirit if the spirit is not a “person”. Trinitarians reason that since Ananias lied to the holy spirit, and then the verse says he lied to God, that therefore the holy spirit must be God. But will a deeper study support this conclusion? With this type of reasoning one might come to the conclusion that the apostles were God. Why? It was at the feet of the apostles the money was laid. The “lie” was first perpetrated toward the apostles. Shall we conclude then, that the apostles are also not men, but the holy spirit? No. Such reasoning would be unsound. It would be the same as claiming that Jonah was Jehovah from Jonah 3:4,5: “Then Jonah began to go through the city one day’s walk; and he cried out and said, ‘Yet forty days and Ninevah will be overthrown.’ Then the people of Nineveh believed in God; (NIV: “believed God.”) and they called a fast and put on sackcloth from the greatest to the least of them.”
Jonah declared the message and according to the NASV, the NIV and others, the people of the city “believed in God” or “believed God.” Jonah didn’t say, “I speak in the name of God,” he just proclaimed the message. One could say that “Jonah was God” since the people “believed God,” and so it must have been God speaking. But this would be unsound reasoning.

Some may ask, referring to Acts 5:3,4: “How can a person ‘lie to’ or ‘play false to’ something that is not a person?” Do we find in Scripture instances in which something IMPERSONAL is spoken of as receiving an action as though it were personal? Consider Mark 4:39: “With that [Jesus] roused himself and rebuked the wind and said to the sea: ‘Hush! Be quiet!’ And the wind abated, and a great calm set in.” Luke 4:39 states: “So he [Jesus] stood over her and rebuked the fever, and it left her. Instantly she rose and began ministering to them.” Luke 15:18 tells us of the prodigal son’s rehearsing his apology to his father: “I will rise and journey to my father and say to him: ‘Father, I have sinned against heaven and against you.’” In all these accounts, the “wind,” the “sea,” the “fever,” and “heaven” were given action as though they were persons. Will anyone say they WERE PERSONS because of the language of the Scripture? The Modern Language Bible at James 3:14 provides another example of this less than literal language: “But if you cherish bitter jealousy and rivalry in your hearts, do not pride yourselves in this and PLAY FALSE TO THE TRUTH.” TEV: “...tell lies against the truth.” KJV: “...lie not against the truth.” RSV: “be false against the truth: NWT: “...lying against the truth.”

THE TRUTH IS NOT A PERSON. At this verse and at Acts 5:3,4 “play false to” or “to lie to” translates forms of the Greek word “pseudomai.” Thayer’s Lexicon defines this Greek word: “to deceive, cheat...to show one’s self deceitful, to play false...to lie, to speak deliberate falsehoods.” So, “Playing false to the holy spirit” at Acts 5:3,4 does not make the holy spirit a “PERSON” any more than “playing false to the truth” at James 3:14 makes “the truth” a “person.”

Does the Bible teach that Jeremiah was Jehovah? At Jer. 1:10 we read: “See, I [Jehovah] have commissioned you this day to be over the nations and over the kingdoms, in order to uproot and to pull down and to destroy and to tear down, to build and to plant.” Lamentations 2:2 says: “Jehovah has swallowed up. He has shown no compassion upon any abiding places of Jacob. In his fury he has torn down the fortified places of the daughter of Judah.” Are we to believe from this that Jeremiah is Jehovah since the action described was said to be accomplished by Jeremiah, and then in Lamentations it is said to be accomplished by Jehovah? Now THIS IS IMPORTANT! How do we know that the apostles, as well as Jonah and Jeremiah were not Jehovah, and to assume they were would be faulty reasoning? OTHER SCRIPTURES INSTRUCT US OTHERWISE! How do we know the holy spirit isn’t Jehovah? OTHER SCRIPTURES INSTRUCT US OTHERWISE!

For example, Mark 13:32 discloses: “Concerning that day or the hour, nobody knows, neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but the Father.” If the holy spirit were God, how could the Father have knowledge that the holy spirit did not? This would be inequality, not equality. At John 17:3, in prayer to his Father, the Lord Jesus prayed: “This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.” According to these words of the Son of God, only the Father is the “only true God;” not the Son, and not the holy spirit who isn’t even mentioned there.

The instruction by Christ at Matt. 11:27 tells us: “All things have been delivered to me by my Father, and no one fully knows the Son but the Father, neither does anyone fully know the Father, but the Son and anyone to whom the Son is willing to reveal him.” So, according to Jesus, the holy spirit does not fully know either the Father or the Son, unless the Son were to teach the holy spirit. Why would anyone have to teach the holy spirit anything if the holy spirit were God? If the doctrine of the Trinity were true, there could not be anything known by the Father that the Son and the holy spirit did not also know.

Matt. 12:31 says: “On this account I say to you, Every sort of sin and blasphemy will be forgiven men, but blasphemy against the spirit will not be forgiven. For example, whoever speaks a word against the Son of man, it will be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the holy spirit, it will not be forgiven him, no, not in this system of things nor in that to come.” If the Trinity Doctrine were true, if the holy spirit were actually a “person,” and all three were God, according to what Jesus says here, the holy spirit would, in some way, rank even above the Son, since sin against the holy spirit would not be forgiven. In actuality, if the holy spirit were a person and God, these words of Jesus would destroy the Trinity Doctrine and place the holy spirit as “God” higher than both the Son and the Father, since “every sort of sin and blasphemy” would also include that against the Father too.

The consensus of the Bible--the entire Bible, as acknowledged by many Bible commentators, scholars and theologians, by the Bible itself, by Jesus and his apostles, by reasoning on all the verses that speak of the holy spirit, its function, etc., and even those verses that at first glance appear to portray the holy spirit as a “person”, we can see that the holy spirit is not a “person”, nor is it alive in itself, equal to, or part of a Trinity, but is the active force emanating from Jehovah God, which he sends forth to accomplish his will!

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