A Return Letter to Robert Hommel Regarding Mantey's Letter to the WTB&TS
[NOTE: This is Part One of my reply to Robert Hommel, who has offered a reply to
my online comments regarding Dr. J. R. Mantey's letter to the WTB&TS, concerning
matters relating to the use of his grammar, and various issues concerning
translations found in the NWT.
In Part One of my reply I am responding to issues relating to John 1:1 and the
NWT's/WTB&TS's use of Mantey's grammar. Part Two will consider the remainder of
Mantey's letter to the WTB&TS, and Hommel's attempt to justify Mantey's
assertions.
For a response to Mantey's claims regarding NWT's placement of the comma after
"today" in Luke 23:43, and a complete response to Chapter 7 of Robert Bowman's
book Understanding Jehovah's Witnesses, where he discusses Luke 23:43, see the
second edition of Jehovah's Witnesses Defended. See also Part Two of my reply to
Hommel, for more on Luke 23:43.]
A Return Letter to Robert Hommel Regarding Mantey's Letter to the WTB&TS
by
Greg Stafford
Dear Mr. Hommel:
I have read your open letter addressed to myself, and below I offer a reply that
I hope will bring you clarity on several points where I believe you are in
serious error.
Mantey's words below are in black, my original comments are in
blue, your
response is in red, and my response to you is in VIOLET. I will set Mantey's
remarks off in single brackets ([ ]), my original words in double brackets ([[
]]), your response in >> << and my response in [< >].
[Watchtower Bible & Tract Society
117 Adams Street
Brooklyn, New York 11201
Dear Sirs
I have a copy of your letter addressed to CARIS in Santa Ana, California, and I
am writing to express my disagreement with statements made in that letter, as
well as in quotations you have made from the Dana-Mantey Greek Grammar.]
[<PLEASE NOTE: There are two things to which Mantey is expressing disagreement:
1) statements made in the WTB&TS's letter to CARIS, and 2) quotations made by
the Society from the Dana-Mantey (hereafter, D-M) grammar. You will further note
that Mantey's first point below has to do with one of the WTB&TS's "statements"
to CARIS>]
[(1) Your statement: "their work allows for the rendering found in the Kingdom
Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures at John 1:1." There is no
statement in our grammar that was ever meant to imply that "a god" was a
permissible translation in John 1:1.]
[[Note Mantey's confusion: The WTB&TS is not commenting on whether or not they
MEANT to imply that "'a god' was a permissible translation in John 1:1,' but
that what the grammar did say 'allowed for it.' What's the difference? The
difference is one has to do with the grammatical basis presented for a
particular translation, and the other has to do with the grammarians INTENT. We
believe that Dana and Mantey provided evidence that lends credibility to the "a
god" translation; whether they INTENDED to do so or not is another matter
entirely.
>> Dr. Mantey is hardly confused. He is not drawing a fine distinction in terms
between "allows for" and "imply." <<
[<That is PRECISELY why he is confused! Mantey is, as even you admit, not
drawing such a distinction, but such a distinction must indeed be drawn. This
should have been clear enough from what I wrote just above your reply, but for
some reason it was not. To make the statement that D-M's grammar allows for an
anarthrous predicate nominative preceding a copula verb to be translated with an
indefinite article (as in NWT's "a god" translation of John 1:1) when D-M itself
refers to an anarthrous predicate nominative preceding a copula verb which they
then translate as "and the place was a market [EMPORION HN]," most certainly
allows for, grammatically, the verse they say is a "parallel case," namely, John
1:1, to be translated similarly (D-M, 148; see below on Hommel's baseless
assertions regarding Attic Greek). THAT is what the WTB&TS meant by their
comments to CARIS, and Mantey's failure to properly distinguish between what D-M
"allows for" and what it 'implies' is unfortunate and irresponsible. Please try
to distinguish what is grammatically allowable and what is theologically
implied.>]
>>He is simply saying his Grammar cannot legitimately be used in support of the
WT's rendition of John 1:1. He is well aware of what the WT intends by quoting
his Grammar.<<
[< I hope this is not going to be a recurring pattern in your response, Mr.
Hommel, but, again, he can say whatever he wants, but the fact is D-M makes
reference to a grammatical parallel to John 1:1, which they translate with an
indefinite article. How is it that you cannot see this simple point? If I make
reference to two texts that use the same grammatical construction and I then
translate one of them a certain way, I am then making it allowable to translate
the other passage with the same grammatical construction in the same way. Of
course, we always consider the different contexts and other relevant issues
before offering a translation, but that is where factors other than grammar come
into play. Here we are speaking of the grammatical basis presented in the D-M
grammar upon which one could say that such and such is allowable. For D-M to
parallel the grammar of John 1:1 to Anabasis 1.4.6 and to then translate the
predicate nominative in Anabasis 1.4.6 as "a market," certainly ALLOWS for
(grammatically) the predicate in John 1:1c. to likewise have an indefinite
article in translation. Whether they view the predicate as having the same
semantic is irrelevant to the fact that the grammatical construction itself is
capable of bearing the indefinite/qualitative semantic. I explained all of this
in my response, which you reference below, but for some reason this point was
not clear to you.>]
>> It seeks to support its translation by citing relevant scholarship.
Unfortunately, it has chosen to do so through the use of selective quotation.
The accepted standards for scholarly citation are well-known - simply put, one
must quote accurately and must include or summarize enough context so that the
reader can easily discern the quoted writer's meaning. It is considered
unethical to quote an author in such as way as to mislead the reader into
thinking that he is saying something he is not. Only JW's seem to be of the
opinion that the WT has quoted the Manual Grammar in accordance with these
standards. <<
[<And only Trinitarians seem to be of the opinion that D-M does not "allow" for
the NWT rendering! You are going in circles, Mr. Hommel. You cannot ignore the
relevant difference between NWT's claim that D-M "allows for" a certain
rendering and Mantey's objection that such a rendering for John 1:1 was not
meant to be 'implied.' Of course they did not mean to imply any such rendering,
but by not being able to see through their staunch Trinitarianism (see D-M, 140)
they apparently could not see the allowance that results from their paralleling
Anabasis 1.4.6 with John 1:1. That is their problem, and yours, not ours.>]
[[Of course, we hardly need their grammar to justify what is really a rather
obvious translation. Still, when they referred to Xenophon's Anabasis 1:4:6
EMPORION D' HN TO XWRION ("the place was a market") and then say "we have a
parallel case to what we have in John 1:1" (Dana and Mantey, 148) the foundation
is laid, grammatically, for a parallel translation. But, of course, the theology
of the grammarians overrides their good grammatical judgment, as is evident by
their Trinitarian coloring of this verse on page 140 of the Manual Grammar.]]
>> If you hardly need the Grammar to support this "obvious" translation, why did
the WT bother quoting it in the first place? <<
[< Is that not obvious, Mr. Hommel? Why, it is to show those who object to such
a translation that even sources to which you look for grammatical guidance
"allow for" such a rendering.>]
>>It is, indeed, an obvious translation. Dr. Mantey translates it as follows:
"The Word was deity." As should go without saying, and as Dr. Mantey makes clear
in his letter to the WTB&TS, by "deity," he means the One True God, not a
secondary, lesser "god" as the WT implies in the appendix of the 1971 NWT.<<
[< Now here is where your blending together of the WTB&TS's "statements" to
CARIS and what they quote from Mantey's grammar in the NWT Appendix to John 1:1
causes you problems. What you apparently do not realize is that in the period
leading up to the NWT translation Colwell's rule and "the Word was God"
(definite) translation were held up as legitimate at almost every turn. The "a
god" rendering is NOT a strictly indefinite translation (at least not in NWT),
but is meant to convey QUALITATIVENESS by means of the English indefinite
article. That even the 1950 translation of John 1:1 is to be understood as
primarily qualitative can be seen from the following statements in the Appendix
to John 1:1: "[Theos in John 1:1c] tells of a certain quality about the Word or
Logos, but it does not identify him as one and the same as God"; "[the
anarthrous predicate] points to a quality about someone" (p. 774, emphasis
added). As even Trinitarian scholars have observed:
It should be observed, however, that the prefixing of the indefinite article in
English does not always result in making the noun indefinite. That qualitative
character which is in Greek denoted by the absence of the article is in English
frequently expressed by employment of the indefinite article.--Arthur Wakefield
Slaten, Qualitative Nouns in the Pauline Epistles and Their Translation in the
Revised Version (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1918), 5.
And:
"Often, the only way to effectively communicate a qualitative noun in the
English idiom is by prefacing the noun with 'a.'" -- Paul Stephen Dixon, "The
Significance of the Anarthrous Predicate Nominative in John" (Th.M. thesis,
Dallas Theological Seminary, 1975), 47.
Since D-M's "deity" is a qualitative translation, as opposed a strictly definite
one, then NWT is merely referring to them (just as it refers to Westcott and
others who offer qualitative translations, albeit with a Trinitarian sense) as
examples supporting their qualitative emphasis on the predicate THEOS in John
1:1c. The WTB&TS is not going to spend time telling the reader about the
theology of those whom it cites in the Appendix article, because that is not
relevant to their main point, which is to establish the legitimacy of a
qualitative rendering. I am sure they figured it was rather obvious how D-M'
theology came into play when the meaning of the translation was at issue, but
since they are concerned here, not with the interpretation per se, but with the
TRANSLATION (that is, a qualitative versus a definite one), then why should we
expect to find more in the Appendix concerning D-M than we do? Because you are
not clear about what they are trying to do, and no doubt because you have been
influenced by Mantey's confusion over this issue, you are having difficulty
letting go of the condemnation that has been heaped upon the NWT and the WTB&TS.
I encourage you to disconnect yourself from such misunderstandings, spend
several months meditating on the issues, and then revisit the matter afresh. >]
>> In support of his translation, Dr. Mantey could easily cite hundreds of
ancient and modern grammarians, commentators, and theologians with impeccable
credentials. The WT, on the other hand, has used such leading lights as the
Unitarian Benjamin Wilson (who had no credentials as a Greek scholar), Johannes
Greber (a notorious occultist), and the anonymous NWT Translation Committee. <<
[<And if Mantey were to cite "hundreds of ancient and modern grammarians,
commentators, and theologians with impeccable credentials" supporting a
qualitative versus a definite TRANSLATION, then NWT could also have legitimately
cited them all. Also, please refrain from using circumstantial ad hominems. They
don't work here. Wilson also translated Titus 2:13 in accordance with the
preferred Trinitarian translation. Why did his Unitarianism not affect him here?
How do you know anything about Wilson's qualifications? Can you please list
Granville Sharp's "credentials as a Greek scholar"? Why is this not an issue
with you, especially since his "rule" is used in numerous grammars, although
most of these grammars written by scholars with "impeccable credentials" almost
always misunderstand the rule founded by a man without any "impeccable
credentials"! >]
>> "The ground is laid grammatically for a parallel translation?" Tell me, Mr.
Stafford, what is the context of the quoted passage from Xenophon in Dr.
Mantey's Grammar? What is he attempting to demonstrate? Is he writing about the
meaning of the anarthrous predicate or the articular subject? <<
[< Tell me, Mr. Hommel, do we have a grammatically parallel use of the predicate
nominative in Anabasis 1.4.6 and John 1:1? Does D-M translate only the subject
in Anabasis 1.4.6 or do they translate the predicate also? How do they translate
the predicate? If they translate the predicate for one of two grammatically
parallel passages with the indefinite article why do you continue to stumble
over the fact that this then "allows for" a similar translation of the predicate
in the grammatically "parallel" passage? >]
>> As the passage occurs in a section entitled, "With the subject in a
copulative sentence," the answer should be obvious. <<
[< Of course it is. So why are you asking? This has nothing to do with my point,
which you seem to have conveniently ignored. >]
>>The context is the use of the article to distinguish the subject in a
copulative sentence, not the function of the anarthrous predicate. Since, in its
letter to CARIS, the WT has not made this context clear in their citation, but
rather has used it to support their translation of the predicate of John 1:1c,
it has violated accepted standards of scholarly citation. More careful in print,
perhaps, the WT at least pays passing reference to the context when citing Dr.
Mantey in the appendix of the 1971 NWT. But even here the WT immediately shifts
to the meaning of the predicate: "Instead of translating John 1:1 AND THE WORD
WAS DEITY, this Grammar could have translated it AND THE WORD WAS A GOD, to run
more in parallel with Xenophon's statement AND THE PLACE WAS A MARKET" (p.
1362). The lack of sufficient context allows readers to assume that by "deity,"
Dr. Mantey means something less than the One True God. The words "could have"
suggests that the Grammar provides a basis for rendering the predicate "a god,"
which it emphatically does not - Mantey's very point in writing his letter in
the first place. >>
[< Again, you are going in circles, and lumping the NWT quotations of D-M with
the statements made to CARIS. You also seem oblivious to the fact that while the
grammatical subject is in focus on page 148-149 of D-M, they also discuss and
translate the predicate for the two "parallel" passages. Then they talk about
their view of the predicate in both Anabasis 1.4.6 and John 1:1. The latter is,
of course, viewed in the light of Trinitarianism. But since we are here
discussing the WTB&TS's "statement" concerning what is 'allowed' by the D-M
grammar, and since they most certainly, no doubt unwittingly, do, then your
point is not established and fails (for the third time I believe) to understand
the issues at hand. If this happens again in your response, I will omit that
portion, as I do not have the time to explain this simple matter to you a fourth
(fifth?) time. >]
>> What of the fact that the Grammar translates "market" as an indefinite noun?
Does that "allow for" an indefinite rendering of the "parallel" predicate noun
in John 1:1c? Not at all. As Dr. Mantey was well aware, while the use of the
article to determine the subject and avoid a convertible proposition may be
"parallel" from one Greek sentence to another, the function of an anarthrous
predicate nominative is a far more complex issue. Pre-verbal, anarthrous
predicate nominatives in copulative sentences can exhibit a range of semantic
forces. <<
[< Okay, I will do it a fourth time, but no more. Again, as I have already
stated, we are talking about what is ALLOWABLE. We fully understand the
different semantics of predicate nouns. But one of those semantics is
qualitative-indefiniteness. Since D-M recognizes this semantic, or at least an
indefinite one, in their referencing and translating a passage that is a
grammatical parallel to John 1:1c., then they ALLOW for the same possibility in
translation to exist in relation to passages with the same grammatical
structure. This is the last time I will bother explaining this to you. Since you
regularly confuse the statements to CARIS with the quotation of D-M in NWT, and
since you fail to recognize the difference between what is "allowed" versus what
is purposefully 'implied,' then there is really nothing else I can do for you.
You have already made up your mind, and at this point you are merely seeking to
justify your misuse of Mantey's letter, and his failure to understand the basis
upon which the WTB&TS made reference to D-M.
<<Dr. Mantey also knew that Xenophon wrote in Attic Greek, making the semantic
force of emporion even less useful as a "parallel" with a predicate nominative
in John's usage. Statistical analyses have shown that in the Koine Greek of the
NT (and, more specifically of the fourth Gospel), preverbal anarthrous predicate
nominatives in copulative sentences are rarely indefinite (Harner, Wallace, and
Dixon). >>
[<The statistical studies you mention are all very subjective and contain
numerous misclassifications based on theological driven criteria. If you had
read my discussion with Don Hartley you would see this, or even if you had read
my book. You have advanced nothing to show a difference between the force of a
preverbal PN in Xenophon and John. The indefinite nuance is the most prominent
in the examples from the Johannine corpus, which can be seen by a consideration
of the context of those texts containing an anarthrous preverbal nominative.
You, of course, give no examples to support your position; you simply fall back
on the studies done by other Trinitarians, all of whom I have interacted with
and whose findings I have disputed through critical analyses of the texts in
question. Could you please interact with the following examples from the Fourth
Gospel, and tell me how force of the predicate is different from that in
Anabasis 1.4.6: 4:19; 6:70; 8:34; 8:44c; 8:44g; 8:48; 9:17; 9:24; 9:25; 9:28;
10:1; 10:2; 10:13; 10:36; 12:6.
"Rarely," did you say, Mr. Hommel? Also, again, do not forget to provide
examples from Xenophon to support your assertions regarding the semantics of the
preverbal PN in his writings, as compared with John. For example, I could cite
Anabasis 1.4.6 or Anabasis 1.1.9 as examples of preverbal PNs with an indefinite
semantic, but now I am doing your homework for you, since you are apparently
unwilling or unable to document your point about alleged differences in the
semantics of the preverbal PN in Xenophon and John. >]
>>Thus, the WT is either being naïve or deceptive by suggesting that an
indefinite predicate nominative in one Greek sentence (in an older dialect, no
less) should be grammatical grounds for rendering a predicate nominative
indefinite in another. <<
[< The deception or naivete comes from one who asserts a different semantic
force for the predicate in Attic versus Koine when no such study has been
offered to support such an assertion! The predicates in 1.4.6 and 1.1.9 are
clearly indefinite, and being Attic does nothing to change this! The fact that
the Johannine preverbal PNs also show a primarily indefinite sense in a great
many instances and are written in Koine also does not affect the bottom line,
which you continue to ignore. I have found a number of Patristic citations that
exhibit a primarily indefinite semantic, also. So unless you can offer an
acceptable analysis whereby Greek of different periods can be shown to differ
from one another in the semantic force of anarthrous PNs preceding the copula,
then your argument will remain circular. >]
[A. We had no "rule" to argue in suppport of the trinity.
B. Neither did we state that we did have such intention. We were simply
delineating the facts inherent in Biblical language. ]
[[Where, then, might we ask, do "the facts inherent in Biblical language"
distinguish between the "person" (as distinct from "being") of Christ and the
"person of the Father," which the grammar discusses on page 140? How does PROS
TON THEON (John 1:1b) "point to" such a distinction, which is what the grammar
claims?]]
>> Nowhere does Dr. Mantey argue that John 1:1 contains a full definition of the
essential Trinity. >>
[< Interesting, for I did not say they "argue that John 1:1 contains a full
definition of the essential Trinity"! Neither it nor any other verse in the
Bible, or combination of verses for that matter, contains or articulates such a
teaching. You have misquoted my point so that you don't have to deal with it.
You will notice, though you apparently did not before, that I refer specifically
to D-M page 140, where we read: "The use of THEOS in Jn. 1:1 is a good example.
PROS TON THEON points to Christ's fellowship with the person of the Father;
THEOS HN hO LOGOS emphasizes Christ's participation in the essence of the divine
nature." In the paragraph just prior to this quotation, they also lean heavily
upon their Trinitarian presuppositions, not grammar. So my point above remains
untouched, and my question remains: How does PROS TON THEON (John 1:1b) "point
to" such a distinction, which is what the grammar claims?>]
<<He merely says that theos in John 1:1c must be translated "God," not "a god."
>>
[< I am sorry, where does D-M say such a thing? >]
<<Yet, if we fully engage the whole counsel of Scripture regarding the Unity of
God, if we fully accept the claims made in the surrounding context of John's
Gospel, if we apply the grammatical term "qualitative" properly, these two
Persons must be One God, for they share the same Nature and attributes. Now, you
may argue that the Bible does not portray God as multi-personal, but that is a
different argument than saying the grammar of John 1:1 does not "imply" a
personal distinction, while maintaining an ontological unity. >>
[< In order for the grammar to imply such a distinction, this distinction would
have to be articulated SOMEWHERE in the Bible, preferably in the Gospel of John.
But it is not, which is why you fail to cite any references for discussion of
the point. You have to misapply the term qualitative to convey a Trinitarian
sense that is nowhere articulated in the Bible. You have to take an ontological
distinction (NOTE: John distinguishes the two in terms of THEOS, not PERSON) and
change it into a "personal" one (which is itself devoid of an ontological
distinction, but only in later Trinitarianism!) in order to fit with later
theology. John does not do this, so neither do we.
John's grammar and vocabulary involve an ontological distinction between hO
THEOS with whom the Word was, and THEOS as a description of the Word's mode of
being. There is nothing to indicate ontological unity in this passage, and
everything points to an ontological distinction! Indeed, even the context points
to such a distinction when it calls the Word the "only-begotten god." (1:18) Of
course, Trinitarians are fond of mistranslating this verse since it is so lethal
to their views, but, I ask, where do we find another instance of an adjective
immediately preceding a noun of the same gender, number and case where the
preceding term is not taken as an adjectival modifier for the term that follows?
Also, if the Word and the Father are the same God, then is the Father the
"only-begotten G-god," also? He would have to be, according to you, for there is
only one God and that triune God involves both the Father and the Son, not to
mention the holy spirit, which would also have to be the "only-begotten G-god."
John 1:1, its context and the context of the entire Bible cannot be made to
agree with Trinitarianism. It stands in direct contradiction to such a teaching.
You next question reveals just how little you understand of our/my position, and
why you need to spend several months, perhaps even a year or two, familiarizing
yourself with the facts. But, that is what you should have done in the first
place: >]
>> We might ask, Mr. Stafford, if you demand that Trinitarians prove their view
of God from the grammar of a single verse, where do we find the notion of the
inferiority of the Word in the grammar of John 1:1? After all, Mormons are quite
happy to admit the Word is "a God," while denying that the Word is in any way
inferior to God the Father. How can you demonstrate, from the grammar alone,
that the Word is a created being, even if He is "a god"? You see, Mr. Stafford,
you must import your theological suppositions that "a god" is the same as "an
angel," and angels are not co-equal with God but were created by Him. While you
may believe your suppositions are more Biblical than those of Trinitarians, it
is disingenuous to accuse Trinitarians like Dr. Mantey of somehow engaging in an
exegetical practice less sound than your own. <<
[< I do not believe that John 1:1 teaches the inferiority of the Word to the God
with whom he existed, so your naive question is moot. Mantey is the one who
claimed that PROS TON THEON involves the Word's "personal fellowship with the
Father," and by this he means that they are distinct in "person" but one in
nature, and the "with" involves the "fellowship" between the two "persons." John
does not say any such thing. He says, quite clearly I might add, that the Word
was with GOD. Therefore, the Word cannot be the same God with whom he was! It is
really that simple, and fully supported by the grammar, which somehow you cannot
see.
If the topic was the temporality of Christ's preexistence, there are a host of
passages supporting such a view, and once you show that you are capable of
carrying on an honest conversation about the ontological distinction inherent in
the grammar of John 1:1, then we can proceed on and discuss other passages. As
it stands, above you have shown your ability to miss the point and ask me a
question that does not relate in any way to my argument so as to detract from
your inability to prove anything from the grammar of John 1:1, without appealing
to your Trinitarian presuppositions. Knowing that you must do this, you have to
try and make it seem as if I am forced into doing the same, but you could not do
that without failing to properly understand what I am arguing in the first
place! Instead, you had to invent an argument on my part, namely, that I somehow
obtain the "inferiority" of the Word to the Father from John 1:1. These tactics
will not work here, I can assure you of that. >]
[C. Your quotation from page 148(3) was in a paragraph under the heading: "With
the subject in a copulative sentence." Two examples occur there to illustrate
that "the article points out the subject in these examples." But we made no
statement in this paragraph about the predicate except that, "as it stands the
other persons of the trinity may be implied in 'theos'." And isn't that the
opposite of what of what your translation "a god" infers? ]
[[Most certainly, but the work of Lane McGaughy has shown that in equative
clauses where both the subject and the predicate nominative have the article,
the first one is the subject and the second is the predicate, thus, there would
have been no confusion about such matters, had John used the article for THEOS
in reference to HO LOGOS. The grammar's statement about "the persons of the
trinity" clearly reveals that theology, not grammar, is the basis for their
translation, and a post-biblical theology at that. Nowhere does the Bible say
anything about a triune God, and nowhere does it mention anything about how one
can be a separate "person" without also being a separate BEING. Trinitarians
created this distinction long after the Bible was written, and have been reading
it back into the text ever since, unfortunately.]]
>> "Most certainly?" Then you admit the WT's inference is deceptive. Thank you
for at least honestly admitting this point.
[< Mr. Hommel, are you reading what I say, or just quoting me for the fun of it?
My "most certainly" is clearly in reference to Mantey's observation that we
disagree with his theology. The reference to their grammar where they cite a
grammatically parallel passage to John 1:1 and translate that parallel passage
with the indefinite article ALLOWS for the parallel passage to be translated
similarly. It does not demand it, but it does allow for it. Grammar alone is
what the WTB&TS is focusing upon here, not theology. Mantey fails to deal with
the text to which he parallels John 1:1, which is why WTB&TS makes reference to
it! Instead he goes off on a tangent about his theological position, which has
nothing to do with the WTB&TS's reference to their section 148(3). >]
<<However, your comments with regard to McGaughty are hardly relevant. McGaughty
wrote his dissertation in 1972. Dr. Mantey's letter was written just 2 years
later. There is no evidence he was aware of McGaughty's study. Even if he was,
it has no bearing on what was written in the Manual Grammar, which was published
some 47 years earlier. >>
[< Once again you fail to see a rather obvious point. NOWHERE do I suggest that
Mantey SHOULD HAVE known of this matter involving the article with the subject
and predicate in copula clauses! I am merely commenting on what Mantey wrote in
his letter and for the benefit of those who might misconstrue him to mean that
the only reason why John did not use the article for the predicate in 1:1c. is
so the subject and predicate could rightly be distinguished, correcting him. If
you don't understand what I am saying or why I am saying it, even though here it
should have been obvious even to you, then either ask for clarification or avoid
touching on the subject until you obtain a proper understanding. >]
<<Dr. Mantey's point, as is plain to all but the most willfully blind WT
apologist, is that the WT cited the Grammar out of context, for the context is
the use of the article to establish the subject of the sentence, not the
definiteness or indefiniteness of the predicate. Further, as the Grammar also
states on page 149, had John used the article with both theos and logos, he
would have made the two a "convertible proposition," that is, interchangeable.
Thus, as the Grammar points out, the anarthrous theos in John 1:1c is
significant beyond merely distinguishing it as the predicate.
[<You are in error, as everyone not blinded by a fanatic zeal to discredit
Jehovah's Witnesses can see. You are also confusing their quotation regarding
"deity" as a qualitative translation and their statement that his grammar allows
for the NWT translation, which it does. I am not going to go over this point
with you again. Four or five times is quite enough. From this point on if you
continue to repeat yourself and repackage the same issues then I will simply
delete them. >]
>> Dr. Mantey's assertion that "the place was not the only market," which the WT
has jumped on in support of its translation, has nothing to do with the
indefiniteness of the noun emporion, but rather that the "place" and the
"market" are not one in the same - are not, in other words, 'convertible.' The
WT's confusion regarding the concept of a convertible proposition is further
manifest on page 1363 of the 1971 NWT: "The proposition "The Word was a god" is
a convertible one." This statement is nonsense: a convertible proposition
relates to two definite nouns (Mantey, p. 149; Wallace, p. 42; etc.). The WT
thus inadvertantly endorses Colwell's reading of theos as definite, the
inevitable conclusion if the subject and predicate nominative in John 1:1c are
convertible. <<
[<Here you are so far out of touch with what is really happening that it is hard
to imagine you being clear on much of anything else. You are assuming far too
much for the WTS, and until you provide a basis for your contentions then I
believe they are a misreading of the primary WT sources relating to this point.
The fact that that place was not the only market most certainly does have
something to do with it being indefinite! As for convertibility, it does NOT
relate solely to definite (to the exclusion of indefinite) nouns! The problem
with Trinitarians is they have to change the semantics of the count noun THEOS
in 1:1c to match that of a mass noun, so they can give Jesus the full nature of
God, but allow for other "persons" to share it. This is eisegesis of the worst
kind. You are forced into inventing a semantic for preverbal PN count nouns
whereby you can give it the semantic you want, but yet you do not see that you
would have to do the same thing with TON THEON in 1:1b. (indeed, everywhere
where the Bible used "God" for one of the three "persons" of the Trinity!),
which you do in fact do, by redefining TON THEON to "the Father" as understood
by later Trinitarianism, namely, as the first person of the consubstantial
Triad. "The Word was a god" is most certainly a convertible clause.
>> The Bible says nothing directly about the pre-incarnate Jesus being the Angel
Michael. You must resort to a series of alleged associations, such as Jesus
having the "voice of an archangel," being the "Bright Morning Star," etc., to
make such an assertion. Why, then, do you insist that Trinitarians play by
different rules? The Bible says there is only one God (Deut 6:4). Jehovah says
he knows of no other gods (Is 44:8). The Bible clearly teaches that the Father
and the Son are called God. Even most WT apologists do not dispute this. You
claim that many beings may be rightly called "gods," and the Son is one of them.
Trinitarians claim no one may be rightly called God but Jehovah (all others are
false gods). This letter is not the place to engage these matters in detail. The
point is that Trinitarians believe they stand on a firm Biblical foundation for
proclaiming the Trinity. For if the Bible declares that God is One, and if no
others may rightly be called God, then Jesus, who is rightly called God, must -
in some way - be that One God, together with the Father.
[<That expression, "in some sense," is where you go off the cliff. In reference
to the identity of Michael the Archangel as the Lord Jesus Christ there is
abundant scriptural testimony, but that is ALL we are trying to prove: IDENTITY.
Trinitarianism, on the other hand, is not just trying to prove that Jesus is God
(you don't even believe that without qualification!), but you are asserting that
there is an articulated basis upon which you can prove the existence of a
certain TYPE of God, namely, a triune being, and that there are three "persons"
who are called "God," but yet are not really God (= the Trinity); rather, they
are three "persons" who share in the nature of the one God. So you are
equivocating on your position by saying that there is only ONE GOD, but then
citing Scripture where you believe the three persons are called "God," yet you
go on to redefine "God" in reference to the three persons, not as the Trinity
(which is how you define the term in your first proposition, "there is only one
God"), but as a qualitative description for each of them, denoting their
participation in the alleged Godhead. THAT is far different from saying, "This
person (Michael) is elsewhere called 'Jesus.'"
Your assertions are also highly selective in that you do not include others
(angels and certain humans) who are called "G-god" or "G-gods" as belonging to
the Godhead, for you have preconceived views from post-biblical creeds telling
you what to believe. Finally, the propositions you put forth are directly
opposed to a great many verses that teach an ontological distinction between God
and the Word, such as John 1:1, 18 and a variety of others, not the least of
which involve those passages where Jesus refers to the Father as his GOD,
without any qualification at all (Rev. 3:12).
So, again, in the case of the Michael = Jesus question, we are pointing to
statements in the Bible that point to this identification; but you are asserting
much, much more (and selectively at that) and in contradiction to the use of
language in Scripture. You must, therefore, refrain from equivocating on your
use of "God" and show where the Trinity is articulated in the Bible. If it is
not articulated in the Bible, then it cannot be dogmatically held up as a Bible
teaching.
>> Finally, I feel I must address your sweeping statements about "post-Biblical
theology." The fact is you cannot demonstrate from the historical record that
the Trinity is post-Biblical. For to do so, you would have to prove that first
Century Jews were henotheists as opposed to monotheists, and this you cannot do,
for they held no such beliefs. >>
[< In fact, there is plenty of evidence to show that they recognized gods other
than Jehovah, but who are subservient to Him. Since I discuss this at length in
my book, I will defer you to my discussion there. Obviously you are not familiar
with the Bible's teaching regarding such divine beings, and you apparently have
not read the Pseudepigrapha or the DSD very carefully at all, either. As for
being monotheists, that only hurts your cause, for over and over and over and
over again the one God is NEVER identified as the "Father, Son, and Holy
Spirit," but always as the Father as DISTINCT from the Son. (1 Cor. 8:4-6) Even
Jesus himself called the Father the ONLY true God. So, you have a problem: Since
Jesus effectively removed himself from the category of "the only true God," then
he is either a false god or a secondary god subservient to the Father. We take
the latter position, which is entirely consistent with the Bible, but you are
forced into viewing Jesus as a false god, for you cannot accept the secondary
category because of your fealty to the creeds of a post-biblical time. Of
course, you will try to say that Jesus is included in the category of "the only
true God," but he will not allow you to do that, as he himself restricted that
to the Father (John 17:3). The only way to get around this is to deny the truth
of what Jesus said, and distort the Scriptures. Thankfully, I just have to read
them and accept what they say, as I do not have to make them fit with
post-biblical notions about a triune being.
<<In fact, the historical record - from the Targums, from the works of the
Ante-Nicene Fathers, from Roman records, from the Bible itself - is clear. Jews
and early Christians were fiercely monotheistic; yet early Christians believed
that Jesus was God and worshipped Him as such. The only way to resolve a Father
and a Son, both of whom are One God, is to accept the multi-personal nature of
that One God, or begin redefining terms like One and God. Sadly, you have chosen
the latter, following the path of every heretic since Marcion. >>
[< You are so far out of touch with historical sources such as these, and
others, that, again, I will defer to my published discussion. I will gladly do
so especially since you cite NO REFERENCES from any of the above sources, so
that we might put your claim to the test and show how you selectively choose
those texts that YOU believe prove your point, and ignore others. When you get
around to citing evidence, let me know. Until then, I have made my position
available for all to read and the fact that you have ignored it shows that you
are not interested in considering issues at length, but only with repeating
those ideas you believe are accurate. You also deny the plain meaning of words
and equivocate at almost every turn. Why, we have not seen such heretical
practices since the Athanasius! (Actually, that is not true, we see them quite
regularly in our modern times.) >]
>> Think about it, Mr. Stafford: one of the first great heresies in the early
Church was Monarchism. Monarchism could only have arisen if early Christians
held both to monotheism and the full divinity of the Father and the Son. For, to
committed henotheists who read the "easily translated" John 1:1c as "The Word
was a god," the notion that the Father and the Son were one person (Monarchism
or modalism) would be impossible, as would be the idea that the Word was equal
to the Father in His essential nature. Historian Harold Brown writes: "The fact
that Gnosticism and adoptionism could not hold their own in the face of
orthodoxy, and that orthodoxy itself came under attack from modalism at the
other end of the theological spectrum, is another evidence of the fact that the
early church simply could not deal with the evidence of the New Testament and
its own experience of Christ except in terms of acknowledging his deity. It was
easier to slip into modalism and confuse Christ with the Father than to say with
Gnosticism that he was a mere lesser aeon; or with adoptionism that he was only
a man" (Heresies, p. 101).
>> So, Mr. Stafford, what historical evidence can you show that accounts for the
rise of the peculiar notion of Christ's full divinity, if early Christians were
henotheists with a clear understanding of the Biblical passages that - according
to you - mandate Christ as a secondary deity? <<
[< It is quite simple that those advocating Trinitarianism in the post-biblical
period were influenced by Greek philosophy and a misguided view of biblical
monotheism. Says Meijering:
'We regard it as highly probable that Athanasius knew this Middle-Platonic
doctrine of the ideas, a doctrine which several Christian writers had already
used before him.This makes it understandable why he used in C.G.2 [Against the
Pagans] terms like ta noeta ["the ideas"], ta theia ["the divine"], ta onta
["the existing"], and theos ["god"] more or less indiscriminately: if the ideas
belong to the godhead, then contemplation of the true intelligible world is
contemplation of God Himself'--- Meijering, Orthodoxy and Platonism in
Athanasius, p. 13.
Meijering sums up Athanasius' thoughts on God's being and actions and their
relation to each other, when he says:
God is the eternal, unchangeable, always identical, real Being, says Athanasius,
using both language and arguments which are also found in the Platonists. He is
then confronted with the difficulty that many Biblical texts seem to contradict
this ontological conception of the divine, especially of the Son. By making use
of the Platonic theory that the words are secondary to the matter signified by
them, he can explain those texts in such a way that they corroborate his
doctrine of the ontological divinity of the Son. --- Meijering, Orthodoxy and
Platonism in Athanasius, p. 104.
That you are unaware of these facts, and have to ask me how your post-biblical
view of God came about, is very telling indeed. May I ask you, Mr. Hommel, where
in the Bible is there any articulation of a tri-personal deity, such that we are
told to recognize personal distinctions in a Godhead where each "person" is not
distinct in being, and where they are all co-equal in power? The fact that your
entire basis for believing such teachings revolves around your equivocation of
the term God and your redefining of the term "person," shows that your belief is
rooted not in the Bible text, but elsewhere, namely, post- and non-biblical
philosophies. >]
[You quoted me out of context. On pages 139 and 149(VI) in our grammar we stated
"without the article, 'theos' signifies divine essence......'theos en ho logos'
emphasizes Christ's participation in the essence of the divine nature." Our
interpretation is in agreement with that in the NEB and the TEV: "What God was
the Word was" an with that of Barclay: "The nature of the Word was the same as
the nature of God", which you quoted in your letter to CARIS.
[[No, there was no out-of-context quotation, for the NWT is merely contradicting
the once-popular view that THEOS in 1:1c is definite, which view resulted from a
misreading and subsequent mishandling of Colwell's rule. Thus, while NWT's and
Mantey's understanding of the qualitativeness differs, NWT is merely building on
the common ground that THEOS is in fact qualitative. Nothing more should be read
into their citation of the Manual Grammar.]]
>> "Nothing more should be read into their citation?" Perhaps if the WT had
stated its position clearly or quoted to demonstrate context, Dr. Mantey would
not have felt obliged to write his letter to the WTB&TS in the first place.
Clearly, Dr. Mantey and a great many others have indeed "read more" into the
citation, and not without good reason. Why? Because the quotes regarding the use
of the article to demonstrate the subject of a sentence and avoid a convertible
proposition were taken out of context to favor a rendering of the predicate as
indefinite. <<
[< As I told you already, it is a qualitative translation using the indefinite
article, and your failure to relate the NWT's use of D-M to the Colwell
controversy is your undoing, in part. >]
END OF PART ONE
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